Scenario
Two business owners walk into two separate broker’s offices and order £100K of (unregulated) finance of the same equipment type from the same dealer with funds from the same lender. Both sign up to the broker’s terms and conditions which both charge the customer the same fee and say the Broker may also get commission from the funder if a deal is accepted. Both customers default at the same time under their respective agreements with the same lender. The lender terminates both agreements on the same day and issues identical proceedings against both customers in the same court. Both customers issue the same defence claiming to be able to rescind their respective finance agreements. The same Court decides one customer can rescind, but the other cannot.
What’s going on?
How come the customers have any defence in law at all? Why was the outcome different between the customers when everything else seemed the same?
Risk of harm
Well, the law looks to protect people when there is risk of harm being done to them. The law recognises that there is a risk of harm where conflicts of interest arise and does not like payments to one counterparty to a contract which the other counterparty does not know about.
Conflict of interest
It seems obvious that a solicitor cannot act and be paid by both a claimant and a defendant to a court case. There is a conflict of interest, placing the solicitor in an impossible position to act impartially and in the best interests of both. What is good for the claimant is not good for the defendant and vica versa. Both expect the Solicitors to give, and they will rely upon, professional impartial advice in their best interests. Exactly, the same point may arise where a broker is advising the customer and takes a fee from the customer and a commission from the lender. To whom does the broker owe a contractual duty? How does the broker square the circle? Scary answer - the broker cannot and it is conflicted.
Secret payments
Likewise, it seems obvious that in commercial transactions no one should pay or receive a bribe, to induce a contract or an outcome. The law will intervene and void any contract induced by a bribe. Exactly, the same point may arise where a payment (commission) is made by a third party intended counterparty (the lender) to an agent (the Broker) of the other intended counterparty to a contract (the Customer) where the other counterparty is not told about the payment. How does the broker square the circle? Scary answer - the broker discloses the commission and obtains informed consent from the customer